· @mplungjan: But "he's an apple" can be mistaken for "he is an apple", while "he has an apple" might be intended. This rule doesn't work generally, therefore it can hardly be called a rule. · As far as I understand, you use a semi-colon to separate main clauses joined by conjunctive adverbs (however, therefore, moreover, nevertheless, then, thus).
Understanding the Context
And, when you use a conjunctive adverb,... He said, “ QQQ.” “ QQQ,” he said. “ QQQ,” said he. In particular, in what situations is the “inverted” VS 1 order of said he preferred over either or both of the two versions that use he said in the “normal” SV 2 order?
Image Gallery
Key Insights
Are these nothing more than three equal options that vary by individual writers’ personal tastes? · 2 To convert the statement He is from the USA. into a Yes/No question, one moves the first auxiliary verb (is in this example; all forms of be are auxiliaries) to a position before the subject noun phrase (he in this example), and adds a question intonation if speaking, or a question mark if writing. So the result is Is he from the USA? · It was he who messed up everything.
Final Thoughts
It was him who messed up everything. What is the difference between these two sentences? · What is he? -- Does the question refer to what he is doing for a living? Who is he? -- Does it refer to his name?
For example, he is Peter. The case of he/him should depend on other considerations, such as, the proper case after the linking verb, "is". It should be simply a matter of which is more correct, It is he Or, It is him My Latin education would have me pick the former. But my knowledge of colloquial English tells me that the phrase, "it was him", is commonly used.